Indian army recruitment for Mechanical Engineering jobs, Civil Engineering Jobs (OCT 2019)

(Indian Army Recruitment ) Indian Army open government jobs for engineers so application are invited for unmarried men and unmarried woman graduate jobs Registration starts on online basis for more info read given details below carefully.

Indian army recruitment

Total Vacancies: - 175



  • => Mechanical Engineering jobs 14(Men) 3(Woman)
  • => Civil Engineers Jobs 46(Men) 4(Woman)
  • => Electrical engineering jobs 22(Men) 2(Woman)
  • => Aeronautical engineering jobs 12(Men)
  • => Computer engineering jobs 44(Men) 3(Woman)
  • => Electronics Engineers jobs 23(Men) 2(Woman)
  • => Production engineering jobs 3(Men)
  • => Architecture engineer jobs 3(Men)



  • Age Limit:- 20 to 27 years



  • Online Application starts from :- 23 Jan 2019 to 21 Feb  2019



  • Following Documents are need for attach:-


1) Application Form
2) Self attested copy of class 10 mark sheet and certificate
3) Self attested copy of class 12 mark sheet and certificate
4) Self attested copy of Degree certificate

Education Qualification:- Engineering Degree on individual Engineering Jobs

Apply online or for more info visit:
Indian army recruitment for Mechanical Engineering jobs, Civil Engineering Jobs (OCT 2019)

IOB Recruitment - 2014 for Probationary Officers and Clerk

Indian Overseas Bank (IOB) has invited applications of the eligible and interested applicants for the recruitment of Probationary Officer & Clerk Posts. The registration can be made online between the time frame of 6 February 2014 to 21 February 2014. Other details related to the post are mentioned below.


Total No of Posts: 100

Names of the Posts:

Selection For Training Programme:
  • Probationary Officers: 50 Posts
  • Clerk: 50 Posts
Recruitment After Completion Of The Training:
  • Probationary Officers: 25 Posts
  • Clerk: 25 Posts

Age Limit: 20 to 28 Years as on 01/02/2014.

Education Qualification: Candidates should possess Graduation from a recognised University/ Institution with minimum 60% Marks and for candidates belonging to SC/ ST/ PC category minimum 55% marks. Graduation results should be declared by the University/ Institution on or before 01-02-2014.

Important Date:
  • Last Date for Online Application: 21/02/2014
  • Last Date for Reprint: 08/03/2014
  • Tentative Download Call Letter Online/Offline Date: After 18/03/2014
  • Tentative Online/Offline Exam Date: 30/03/2014
  • Tentative Month of Interview For Training: April/May-2014

Labels: Entrance Exam

Exam Date of Talati cum Mantri / Jr. Clerk District Panchayat 2014

District Panchayat Department Gujarat recently declared exam schedule for Talati cum Mantri, Junior Clerk & Multipurpose Health Worker recruitment 2014. Here you can check complete date and time wise Schedule.

Exam Date of Talati cum Mantri / Jr. Clerk District Panchayat 2014


Time Table

Post
Exam Date
Exam Time
Junior Clerk
22/02/2014
13:30 to 14:30
Multipurpose Health Worker (Male)
22/02/2014
16:00 to 17:00
Talati cum Mantri
23/02/2014
13:30 to 14:30
Multipurpose Health Worker (Female)
23/02/2014
16:00 to 17:00


Note: Written examinations will be on same day for all Districts.
Labels: Entrance Exam

Exam date of Revenue Clerk / Talati Exam, 2014

Gujarat Revenue Department Announced Exam date of Talati / Revenue Clerk Exam, 2014. It is one of the best chances for all Gujarat Candidates who wants to seek job in Government organization.

                   
Exam Date: 16/02/2014

Syllabus for Gujarat Talati Mantri & Jr. Clerk 2014
Total 100 marks paper
  • Gujarati Language: 20
  • Gujarati Grammar: 20 mark
  • Math: 15 mark
  • English Grammar: 15 mark
  • GK and reasoning: 35 mark
  • Passing Marks: 35%
As we know the Gujarat Talati Mantri Recruitment 2014 written examination will be held on 16th February, 2014 so all candidates very soon download their admit card on same Official website.


Labels: Entrance Exam

Gujarat Talati Mantri & Jr. Clerk Exam Syllabus Gujarat 2014

Recently Gujarat Revenue Department has will soon release the Gujarat Talati Mantri Syllabus 2014 or Gujarat Revenue Department Syllabus 2014 for 1500 posts of class 3 on its official website ojas.guj.nic.in. They are inviting applications to fill up all these 1500 vacancies of talati or hisabi. It is one of the best chances for all Gujarat Candidates who wants to seek job in Government organization.
Syllabus for Gujarat Talati Mantri & Jr. Clerk 2014
Total 100 marks paper
  • Gujarati Language: 20
  • Gujarati Grammar: 20 mark
  • Math: 15 mark
  • English Grammar: 15 mark
  • GK and reasoning: 35 mark
  • Passing Marks: 35%

As we know the Gujarat Talati Mantri Recruitment 2014 written examintion will be held on 17th February, 2014 so all candidates very soon download thier admit card on same Official website.

Gujarat Revenue Department Announced vacancies for Mehsuli Talati (Clerk) - Class 3.
Total no. of posts: 1500
Salary: Rs. 5300 for next five year and after that pay scale will be between 5200 – 20200 + GP Rs. 1900 
Educational Qualification: 12th passed candidates can apply if also have computer skills & knowledge of English, Hindi & Gujarati.
Age: 18- 28 years on 30/1/2014. Age rules are different for scheduled cast, tribe, other backward classes. 
Application Fee: Rs. 150 application cum recruitment 2014 examination for general category candidates. If candidates is OBC/ST/SC then only Rs. 50 required to pay. 
Last date for online application: 30/01/2014

Syllabus for Talati cum Mantri & Jr. Clerk Exam (Panchayat Department Selection Committee & Revenue Department / Mehsul Vibhag, Gujarat) is available for edudept.blogspot.com.




Labels: Entrance Exam

Interview Questions and Answers for Library Assistant

Hello friends this time edudept.blogspot.com posting some library assistant / library clerk questions and answer for fresher because they are easy to face open interviewer questions on library assistant / library clerk. I will be updating this post on regular basis. So, keep in touch.
Are you thinking of becoming a library assistant? Library assistants work with library visitors, help them loan material, accept material back, sort it, shelve it, and manage relevant files.
Here are examples of library interview questions for assistant / library clerk with suggested answers.
Interview Questions and Answers for Library Assistant / Library Clerk
1. What are important characteristics for a library assistant?
Ans: One important characteristic is detail orientation; library assistants are highly organized and detail oriented. They work with files, know where materials are on the various shelves, and keep customer accounts correctly updated. Strong memory is another desirable characteristic.
2. Would you say you are good with people?
Ans: Being a library assistant does require a degree of interpersonal skills, if only to be tactful and quick to help patrons locate desired material. Patience and tolerance for other people’s tastes and interests is important if you do not wish to offend people.
3. What types of library material have you worked with in the past?
Ans: Books are an obvious answer, but many libraries also include audio and video materials, microfilm, periodicals, cards and slides, etc. Sometimes these materials require treatment or cataloging systems which are different from those of books.
4. Do you have the necessary basic proficiency with technology required for the job?
Ans: Work at the library requires the ability to use computers, the internet, and software like Word, Excel, and any library-specific catalog programs. The ability to type is desirable. Assistants should be able to operate computers themselves and instruct visitors whenever necessary.
5. Do you have experience handling books and maintaining them in good shape?
Ans: Library assistants may be responsible for book repair and maintenance.


Labels: Interview

UGC - NET Exam Date in December 2013

This article is about UGC NET 2013 Online Application Form. National Eligibility Test - December, 2013 for Junior Research Fellowship and Eligibility for Assistant Professor The candidates can apply online for UGC NET 2013 Exam from the official website http://www.ugcnetonline.in/. Get the all details about the UGC NET exam and how to apply online for UGC NET Exam 2013.


Important Dates

i)
Last date for Applying Online & generation of filled Bank Challan for Fee.
30.10.2013
                                                        ii)
Last date of submission of Fee through online
generated Bank Challan, at any branch of
State Bank of India (SBI).
02.11.2013
                                                       iii)
Last date of taking printout of Application Form,  Attendance Slip and Admit Card from UGC website (www.ugcnetonline.in).  
05.11.2013
                                                      iv)
Last date for receiving the printout of online Application Form (one copy) and Attendance Slip (one copy) at the respective Coordinating University opted by the candidate
(with fee receipt & category certificate(s) )
09.11.2013



Applicants are required to fill UGC Net 2013 online application from Fill the form in accurate manner with all mandatory details (i.e. www.ugcnetonline.in OR through a link available on the UGC website: www.ugc.ac.in).
Labels: Entrance Exam

UGC NET June 2013 Computer Science and Applications Solved Paper

This post gives the question and answers for June 2013 Computer Science and Applications solved paper.

UGC NET JUNE 2013 PAPER - II COMPUTER SCIENCE AND APPLICATIONS

1. COCOMO stands for
(A) COmposite COst MOdel
(B) COnstructive COst MOdel
(C) COnstructive Composite MOdel
(D) COmprehensive Construction MOdel

2. Match the following :
a. Good quality i. Program does not fail for a specified time in a given environment
b. Correctness  ii. Meets the functional requirements
c. Predictable   iii. Meets both functional and non-functional requirements
d. Reliable       iv. Process is under statistical control
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iii ii iv i
(B) ii iii iv i
(C) i ii iv iii
(D) i ii iii iv

3. While estimating the cost of software, Lines Of Code (LOC) and Function Points (FP) are used tomeasure which one of the following ?
(A) Length of code
(B) Size of software
(C) Functionality of software
(D) None of the above

4. A good software design must have
(A) High module coupling, High module cohesion
(B) High module coupling, Low module cohesion
(C) Low module coupling, High module cohesion
(D) Low module coupling, Low module cohesion

5. Cyclometric complexity of a flow graph G with n vertices and e edges is
(A) V(G) = e+n–2
(B) V(G) = e–n+2
(C) V(G) = e+n+2
(D) V(G) = e–n–2

6. When the following code is executed what will be the value of x and y ?
int x = 1, y = 0;
y = x++;
(A) 2,1
(B) 2,2
(C) 1,1
(D) 1,2

7. How many values can be held by an array A(–1,m;1,m) ?
(A) m
(B) m2
(C) m(m+1)
(D) m(m+2)

8.What is the result of the expression (1&2)+(3/4) ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 0

9. How many times the word ‘print’shall be printed by the following program segment ?
for (i=1, i<2,i++)
for (j=1,j<2,j++)
for(k=1,k<2,k++)
printf("print/n")
(A) 1
(B) 3
(C) 6
(D) 8

10. Which of the following is not a type of Database Management System ?
(A) Hierarchical
(B) Network
(C) Relational
(D) Sequential

11. Manager’s salary details are to be hidden from Employee Table. This Technique is called as
(A) Conceptual level Datahiding
(B) Physical level Datahiding
(C) External level Datahiding
(D) Logical level Datahiding

12. A Network Schema
(A) restricts to one to many relationship
(B) permits many to many relationship
(C) stores Data in a Database
(D) stores Data in a Relation

13. Which normal form is considered as adequate for usual database design ?
(A) 2NF
(B) 3NF
(C) 4NF
(D) 5NF

14. If D1,D2, .. ..Dn are domains in a relational model, then the relation is a table, which is a subset of
(A) D1+D2+ … +Dn
(B) D1×D2× ×Dn
(C) D1D2Dn
(D) D1–D2– … –Dn

15. Which of the following addresses is used to deliver a message to the
correct application program running on a host ?
(A) Port
(B) IP
(C) Logical
(D) Physical

16. In ________ substitution, a character in the plaintext is always changed to the same character in the ciphertext, regardless of its position in the text.
(A) polyalphabetic
(B) monoalphabetic
(C) transpositional
(D) multialphabetic

17. In classful addressing, the IP address
190.255.254.254 belongs to
(A) Class A
(B) Class B
(C) Class C
(D) Class D

18.In hierarchical routing with 4800 routers, what region and cluster sizes should be chosen to minimize the size of the routing table for a three layer hierarchy ?
(A) 10 clusters, 24 regions and 20 routers
(B) 12 clusters, 20 regions and 20 routers
(C) 16 clusters, 12 regions and 25 routers
(D) 15 clusters, 16 regions and 20 routers

19. In IPv4 header, the ______ field is needed to allow the destination host to determine which datagram a newly arrived fragments belongs to.
(A) identification
(B) fragment offset
(C) time to live
(D) header checksum

20. Given L1=L(a*baa*) and L2=L(ab*). The regular expression corresponding to language L3 = L1/L2 (right quotient) is given by
(A) a*b
(B) a*baa*
(C) a*ba*
(D) None of the above

21. Given the production rules of a grammar G1 as
S1 AB | aaB
A a | Aa
B b
and the production rules of a grammar G2 as S2 aS2bS2 | bS2aS2 | λ
Which of the following is correct statement ?
(A) G1 is ambiguous and G2 is not ambiguous.
(B) G1 is ambiguous and G2 is ambiguous.
(C) G1 is not ambiguous and G2 is ambiguous.
(D) G1 is not ambiguous and G2 is not ambiguous.

22. Given a grammar : S1 Sc, S SA | A, A aSb | ab, there is a rightmost derivation S1 Sc SAC SaSbc Thus, SaSbc is a right sentential form, and its handle is
(A) SaS
(B) bc
(C) Sbc
(D) aSb

23. The equivalent production rules corresponding to the production rules S Sα1 |Sα2 | β1 | β2 is
(A) S → β1 | β2, A → α1A | α2A | λ
(B) S → β1| β2| β1A | β2A, A → α1A | α2A
(C) S → β1 | β2, A → α1A | α2A
(D) S → β1 | β2 | β1A | β2A, A → α1A | α2A | λ

24. Given a Non-deterministic Finite Automation (NFA) with states p and r as initial and final states respectively and transition table as given below:


A
B
P
-
Q
Q
R
S
R
R
S
S
R
S

The minimum number of states required in Deterministic Finite Automation (DFA) equivalent to NFA is
(A) 5
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 2

25. Which is the correct statement(s) for Non Recursive predictive parser ?
S1 : First(α) = {t| α
* tβ for some
string β}
*tβ
S2 : Follow(X)={ a| S
*αXaβ for
some strings α and β}
(A) Both statements S1 and S2 are incorrect.
(B) S1 is incorrect and S2 is correct.
(C) S1 is correct and S2 is incorrect.
(D) Both statements S1 and S2 are correct.

26. Given an open address hash table with load factor α < 1, the expected number of probes in a successful search is
(A) Atmost 1 / α ln (1 – α / α)
(B) Atmost 1 / α ln (1  /1 – α)
(C) Atleast 1 / α ln (1 /1 – α)
(D) Atleast 1 / α ln (α /1 – α)

27. For a B-tree of height h and degree t, the total CPU time used to insert a node is
(A) O(h log t)
(B) O(t log h)
(C) O(t2h)
(D) O(th)

28. The time complexity to build a heap with a list of n numbers is
(A) O(log n)
(B) O(n)
(C) O(n logn)
(D) O(n2)

29. The value of postfix expression:
8 3 4 + – 3 8 2 / + * 2 $ 3 + is
(A) 17
(B) 131
(C) 64
(D) 52

30. Consider the following statements for priority queue :
S1 : It is a data structure in which the intrinsic ordering of the elements does determine the result of its basic operations.
S2 : The elements of a priority queue may be complex structures that are ordered on one or several fields.
Which of the following is correct ?
(A) Both S1 and S2 are incorrect.
(B) S1 is correct and S2 is incorrect.
(C) S1 is incorrect and S2 is correct.
(D) Both S1 and S2 are correct.

31. Repository of information gathered from multiple sources, storing under unified scheme at a single site is called as
(A) Data mining
(B) Meta data
(C) Data warehousing
(D) Database

32. The task of correcting and pre processing data is called as
(A) Data streaming
(B) Data cleaning
(C) Data mining
(D) Data storming

33. Using data p=3, q=11, n=pq, d=7 in RSA algorithm find the cipher text of the given plain text SUZANNE
(A) BUTAEEZ
(B) SUZANNE
(C) XYZABCD
(D) ABCDXYZ

34. The relation “divides” on a set of positive integers is ________.
(A) Symmetric and transitive
(B) Anti symmetric and transitive
(C) Symmetric only
(D) Transitive only

35. Give as good a big–O estimate as possible for the following functions :
(nlogn+n2)(n3+2) and (n!+2n) (n3+log(n2+1))
(A) O(n5+2n2) & O(n3*n!)
(B) O(n5) & O(n3*2n)
(C) O(n5) & O(n3* n!)
(D) O(n5+2n2) & O(n3*2n)

36. A test contains 100 true/false questions. How many different ways can a student answer the questions on the test, if the answer may be left blank also?
(A) 100P2
(B) 100C2
(C) 2100
(D) 3100

37. Which of the following connected simple graph has exactly one spanning tree ?
(A) Complete graph
(B) Hamiltonian graph
(C) Euler graph
(D) None of the above

38. How many edges must be removed to produce the spanning forest of a graph with N vertices, M edges and C connected components ?
(A) M+N–C
(B) M–N–C
(C) M–N+C
(D) M+N+C

39. Which of the following shall be a compound proposition involving the propositions p, q and r, that is true when exactly two of the p, q and r are true and is false otherwise?
(A) (p q ⎤ r) ( p q r) (⎤ p q r)
(B) (p q r) ( p q r) (⎤ q ⎤ p⎤ r)
(C) (p q ⎤ r) ( p ⎤ q r) (⎤ p q r)
(D) (p r q) ( p q r) (⎤ p q r)

40. The truth value of the statements : !xP(x) → ∃xP(x) and !x⎤ P(x) xP(x), (where the notation !xP(x) denotes the proposition “There exists a unique x such that P(x) is true”) are :
(A) True and False
(B) False and True
(C) False and False
(D) True and True

41. How many different Boolean functions of degree 4 are there ?
(A) 24
(B) 28
(C) 212
(D) 216

42. A Boolean operator s is defined as follows :
1 s 1 = 1, 1 s 0 = 0, 0 s 1 = 0 and
0 s 0 = 1
What will be the truth value of the expression (x s y) s z = x s (y s z) ?
(A) Always false
(B) Always true
(C) Sometimes true
(D) True when x, y, z are all true

43. Which one of the following is decimal value of a signed binary number 1101010, if it is in 2’s complement form ?
(A) – 42
(B) – 22
(C) – 21
(D) – 106

44. A set of processors P1, P2, ……, Pk can execute in parallel if Bernstein’s conditions are satisfied on a pairwise basis; that is
P1 || P2 || P3 || ….. || Pk if and only if :
(A) Pi || Pj for all i j
(B) Pi || Pj for all i = j+1
(C) Pi || Pj for all i < j
(D) Pi || Pj for all i > j

45. When a mobile telephone physically moves from one to another cell, the base station transfers ownership to the cell getting strongest signal. This process is known as _______.
(A) handoff
(B) mobile switching
(C) mobile routing
(D) cell switching

46. A virtual memory based memory management algorithm partially swaps out a process. This is an example of
(A) short term scheduling
(B) long term scheduling
(C) medium term scheduling
(D) mutual exclusion

47. Assuming that the disk head is located initially at 32, find the number of disk moves required with FCFS if the disk queue of I/O block requests are 98, 37, 14, 124, 65, 67 :
(A) 310
(B) 324
(C) 320
(D) 321

48. Let the page fault service time be 10 millisecond(ms) in a computer with
average memory access time being 20 nanosecond(ns). If one page fault is generated for every 106 memory accesses, what is the effective access time for memory ?
(A) 21 ns
(B) 23 ns
(C) 30 ns
(D) 35 ns

49. Consider the following UNIX command :
sort <in> temp; head – 30 <temp; rm temp
Which of the following functions shall be performed by this command ?
(A) Sort, taking the input from “temp”, prints 30 lines from temp and delete the file temp
(B) Sort the file “temp”, removes 30 lines from temp and delete the file temp
(C) Sort, taking the input from “in” And writing the output to “temp” then prints 30 lines from temp on terminal. Finally “temp” is removed.
(D) Sort, taking the input from “temp” and then prints 30 lines from “temp” on terminal. Finally “temp” is removed.

50. The mv command changes
(A) the inode
(B) the inode-number
(C) the directory entry
(D) both the directory entry and the Inode